UHS 2010

Q.1 Which one is the highest power multiple?

A) Giga
B) Tera
C) Mega
D) Deca

Q.2 SI unit of charge is _______.

A) Ampere
B) Volt
C) Coulomb
D) Calorie

Q.3 The electrical analog of mass is electricity is _________.

A) Capacitance
B) Inductance
C) Charge
D) Resistance

Q.4 Which one of the following relations is correct?

A) 1 wb m-2 = N m-1 A-1
B) 1 Tesla = 104 Gausses
C) 1 wb m-2 = 1 Tesla
D) All of these

Q.5 Life time of electron in metastable state is about _________.

A) 10-5 sec
B) 10-3 sec
C) 10-8 sec
D) 10-2 sec

Q.6 The torque acting on a current carrying coil is given by _____________.

A) τ = NIAB cos α
B) τ = BIL sin α
C) τ = NIAB sin α
D) τ = BIL cos α

Q.7 The grid in the cathode ray oscilloscope _____________.

A) Controls number of waves
B) Controls the brightness of spot formed
C) Accelerates electrons
D) Has positive potential with respect to cathode

Q.8 The horizontal range of a projectile, at a certain place, is completely determined by

A) The angle of projection
B) The initial velocity of projection
C) The mass of the projectile
D) Speed and mass of the projectile

Q.9 If velocity is double, then.

A) Momentum increase 4 times and K.E increases 2 times
B) Momentum and K.E remain same
C) Momentum increases 2 times and K.E increase constant
D) Momentum increases 2 times and K.E increases 4 times

Q.10 The consumption of energy by 60-watt bulb in 2 seconds is:

A) 20 J
B) 120 J
C) 30 J
D) 0.02 J

Q.11 In transistors, the base region is very thin, of the order of

A) 10-5 cm
B) 10-6 m
C) 10-6 mm
D) 10-6 µm

Q.12 The closed loop gain of OP-AMP depends on

A) Internal structure of OP-AMP
B) Externally connected resistances
C) Voltage of power supplies
D) Input resistance

Q.13 The net charge on an N-type substance is

A) 0.7 volts
B) 0.3 volts
C) 0.25 volts
D) 0.07 volts

Q.14 The value of Wien’s constant is

A) 2.90 x 10-3 mK
B) 3.34 x 10-4 mK
C) 4.22 x 10-7 mK
D) 3.42 x 10-8 mK

Q.15 The minimum frequency below which no electron is emitted from the metal surface is called

A) High frequency
B) Low frequency
C) Threshold frequency
D) Resonance frequency

Q.16 In pair production, the type of photon used

A) α-particle
B) β-particle
C) X-rays
D) γ-radiations

Q.17 The life time of an electron in an excited state is about 10-8 s. What is its uncertainty in energy during this time?

A) 1.05 x 10-41 J
B) 1.05 x 10-26 J
C) 1.15 x 1010 J
D) 2.19 x 10-40 J

Q.18 Velocity of electron moving in first orbit of hydrogen is

A) 2.19 x 107 m/sec
B) 2.18 x 107 m/sec
C) 2.2 x 108 m/sec
D) 2.19 x 106 m/sec

Q.19 LASER is a potential energy source for inducing which type of reaction?

A) Radioactive
B) Fission
C) Ionization
D) Fusion

Q.20 In the half-life of an element, the equation for the number of decaying atoms is given by

A) ΔN ∝ -NΔt
B) ΔN = KNΔt
C) ΔN ∝ -nΔt
D) ΔN = -ΔNΔt

Q.22 The SI unit of absorbed dose ‘D’ i.e. radiation effect is Gray and one Gray is equal to

A) kJ / mol
B) J / mo
C) kg / J
D) J / kg

Q.23 The principle of homogeneity of dimensions determines

A) Only variable in the equation
B) Only constant in the equation
C) Correctness of an equation
D) Constant and variable in the equation

Q.24 For a body to be in complete equilibrium

A) Linear acceleration is zero
B) Angular acceleration is zero
C) Linear acceleration is zero but angular acceleration is not zero
D) Linear acceleration and angular acceleration both should be zero

Q.25 If length of a spanner is ‘I’ and a force ‘F’ is applied on it to tighten a nut such that it passes through the pivot point, then torque is

A) Zero
B) Ff
C) Fl sin θ
D) Fl sin θλ

Q.26 If a force of magnitude 8 N acts on a body in direction making an angle 30, its x and y
components will be

A) Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 8
B) Fx = 8 and Fy = 4√3
C) Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 4
D) Fx = 8√3 and Fy = 4

Q.27 The difference of a vector B

A) A null vector
B) Equal to magnitude of vector B
C) Twice the magnitude of vector B
D) Smaller than magnitude of vector B

Q.29 If the velocity of the body changes by equal amount in equal intervals of time, the body is said to have:

A) variable acceleration
B) uniform acceleration
C) uniform velocity
D) negative acceleration

Q.31 If a force of 12 N acts on a car and changes its momentum from 36 kgm/sec to 60 kgm/sec, the time during which this change occurs will be

A) 24 sec
B) 2 sec
C) 12 sec
D) 8 sec

Q.32 Which one of the following is a non-conservative force?

A) Electric force
B) Elastic spring force
C) Gravitational force
D) Frictional force

Q.33 Value of escape velocity for the surface of the earth is 11 km/sec. Its value for surface of the moon is

A) 11 km/sec
B) 10.4 km/sec
C) 2.4 km/sec
D) 4.3 km/sec

Q.34 On a clear day at noon, the intensity of solar energy reaching the earth’s surface is about

A) 1.0 kWm-2
B) 1.4 kWm-2
C) 1.0 Wm-2
D) 1.4 Wm-2

Q.35 When a lift is accelerated upward, the apparent weight of an object in it will be

A) Equal to its real weight
B) Less than its real weight
C) Zero
D) Greater than its real weight

Q.37 A wheel of radius 1 m covers an angular displacement of 180. Its linear displacement is

A) 3.14 m
B) π rad
C) 6.28 m
D) 0.157 m

Q.38 Conservation of mass of fluid flow leads to

A) Bernoulli’s equation
B) Venturi meter
C) Equation of motion
D) Equation of continuity

Q.39 The blood vessels collapse when

A) External pressure applied becomes greater than the systolic pressure
B) External pressure applied is equal to systolic pressure
C) External pressure applied is less than the systolic pressure
D) External pressure applied is zero

Q.40 An oscillating body is at mean position at t = 0. At t = T/4 it will be at

A) Extreme position
B) Mean position
C) Between extreme and mean position
D) Beyond extreme position

Q.41 In a simple pendulum, the tension of the string is

A) g cos θ
B) mg sin θ
C) mg cos θ
D) mg

Q.42 Two sound waves having the same amplitudes are moving in the same direction are out of phase. The amplitude of the resultant wave is

A) Zero amplitude
B) The sum of amplitude of the two waves
C) Difference of the amplitudes of the two waves
D) Double the amplitude of either wave

Q.43 A source ‘Y’ of unknown frequency produces 4 beats with a source of 240 Hz and 8 beats with a sound of 252 Hz. Frequency of the source ‘Y’ is

A) 244 Hz
B) 236 Hz
C) 248 Hz
D) 246 Hz

Q.44 An organ pipe closed at one end has a length of 25 cm. Wavelength of the fundamental note is

A) 25 cm
B) 50 cm
C) 100 cm
D) 75 cm

Q.45 In Newton ring apparatus, at the point of contact of the lens and glass plate, the additional path
difference introduced is

A) λ/4
B) λ/2
C) λ
D) λ/3

Q.46 The path difference ‘BD’ for destructive interference is

A) (m + ½) λ
B) mλ
C) d sin θ
D) 3λ

Q.47 In the case of a grafting spectrometer, the resolving power ‘R’ of the grating is defined as

A) λ / Δλ
B) λ / D
C) λ / λ1
D) N x m

Q.48 Which one of the following lights travels fastest in optical fibers?

A) Visible light
B) Ultraviolet light
C) Ordinary light
D) Invisible infrared light

Q.49 The value of universal gas constant is

A) 8.314 Jmol-1K-1
B) 8.324 Jmol-1 K-1
C) 7.23 Jmol-1K-1
D) 1.00 Jmol-1 K-1

Q.50 The turbine in a steam power plant takes steam from a boiler at 427 °C and exhausts into a low
temperature reservoir at 77 °C. What is the maximum possible efficiency?

A) 50%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 70%

Q.51 Which one of the following is a postulate of kinetic theory of gases?

A) Molecules do not exert force on each other
B) The size of molecules is much larger than separation between the molecules
C) A finite volume of gas consists of a very small number of molecules
D) The gas molecules are not in random motion

Q.52 Which one is not an irreversible process?

A) Slow compression of a gas into a cylinder
B) Changes due to friction
C) Explosion
D) Dissipation of energy

Q.53 Electric intensity is a vector quantity and its direction is

A) Perpendicular to the direction of field
B) Opposite to the direction of force
C) At a certain angle
d) Along the direction of force

Q.55 SI unit of electric flux is

A) NmC-1
B) Nm-2 C-2
C) Nm2 C-2
D) Nm2 C-2

Q.56 The equivalent current which passes from a point at higher potential to a point at a lower
potential as if it represented a movement of positive charges is

A) Electronic current
B) Electric current
C) Magnetic lines
D) Conventional current

Q.57 If ‘V’ is applied potential difference across a resistance ‘R’, then loss in potential energy per unit
time is

A) VI
B) I^2 R
C) V^2/R
D) All of the above

Q.58 The substances like germanium and silicon have

A) Negative temperature coefficients
B) Positive temperature coefficients
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

Q.59 The sensitivity of a galvanometer can be decreased by

A) Increasing magnetic field
B) Increasing number of turns of the coil
C) Increasing c/BAN Ration
D) Decreasing length of couple ‘c’

Q.60 Force on a current carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field is

A) F = NIA cos α
B) F = μnI
C) F = ILB sin α
D) F = ILA cos α

Q.61 In an electrochemical series, standard electrode potentials are arranged on the basis of:

A) pH scale
B) pOH scale
C) Hydrogen Scale
D) pKa scale

Q.62 The reaction which is responsible for the production of electricity in the Voltaic cell is:

A) Hydrolysis reaction
B) Oxidation reaction
C) Redox reaction
D) Reduction reaction

Q.63 Glucose is converted into ethanol by the enzyme _______ present in yeast:

A) Urease
B) Invertase
C) Sucrase
D) Zymase

Q.64 The rate of reaction involving ions can be studied by __________ method

A) Dilatometric
B) Refractometric
C) Optical rotation
D) Electrical conductivity

Q.65 When one mole of gaseous hydrogen ions are dissolved in water to form an infinitely dilute
solution, the amount of heat liberated is

A) -1891 kJmol-1
B) -1075 kJmol-1
C) -499 kJmol-1
D) -1562 kJmol-1

Q.66 Energy required to remove an electron from the outermost shell of its isolated gaseous atom in
the ground state is

A) Electron affinity
B) Lattice energy
C) Ionization energy
D) Crystal energy

Q.67 Which of the following carbonates of alkali metals is not stable towards heat and is decomposed
on heating to its oxide along with liberation of CO2?

A) Li2CO3
B) Mg2CO3
C) K2CO3
D) Na2CO3

Q.68 The presence of calcium is essential for the normal development of plants. An adequate supply
of calcium appears to stimulate the development of which part of the plants?

A) Leaves
B) Fruits
C) Root hairs
D) Branches

Q.69 Which of the following sulphates is not soluble in water?

A) Sodium Sulphate
B) Barium Sulphate
C) Potassium Sulphate
D) Zinc Sulphate

Q.70 The trend in the densities of elements of Group III-A of the Periodic Table is

A) A gradual increase
B) A gradual decrease
C) First decrease then increase
D) First increase then decrease

Q.71 White lead has one of the following properties

A) Acidic
B) Crystalline
C) Amorphous
D) Neutral

Q.72 The strongest acid among the following is

A) HF
B) HI
C) HCl
D) HBr

Q.73 The noble gas which is used in radiotherapy of cancer is

A) Radon
B) Xenon
C) Krypton
D) Argon

Q.74 Paramagnetic behavior of an atom, ion or molecule is due to presence of

A) Unpaired electrons
B) Paired electrons
C) Protons
D) Neutrons

Q.75 The geometry of the complexes depends upon the type of ________ taking place in the valence
shell of the central metal atom

A) Hybridization
B) Protonation
C) Deprotonation
D) Dissociation

Q.76 KMnO4 acts as a

A) Reducing agent
B) Excellent precipitating reagent
C) Germicide
D) Oxidizing agent

Q.77 A gasoline of higher octane number can be obtained by

A) Oxidative cleavage
B) Thermal cracking
C) Catalytic cracking
D) Steam cracking

Q.78 Ethyne molecule is formed when two carbon atoms joined together to form a sigma bond by

A) sp-s overlap
B) sp3-sp3 overlap
C) 2py-2py overlap
D) sp-sp overlap

Q.79 Symmetrical alkanes can be produced by

A) Sabatier Sender’s Reaction
B) Hydrogenolysis Reaction
C) Reduction Reaction
D) Kolbe’s Electrolytic Reaction

Q.80 The catalyst used for the preparation of acrylonitrile is

A) Cu2Cl2 and NH4Cl
B) Al2O3 and NH4Cl
C) Cu2Cl2 and NH4OH
D) Cu2Cl2 and Al2O3

Q.81 When a hydrogen atom is removed from benzene, the group left behind is called

A) Alkyl group
B) Phenyl group
C) Benzyl group
D) Methyl group

Q.82 The introduction of NO2 group in benzene ring is called ‘Nitration’. The nitration of benzene
takes place when it is heated with a 1:1 mixture of _________ at 50 oC-55 oC.

A) Conc. HNO3 and conc. HCl
B) Conc. HNO3 and conc. Acetic acid
C) Conc. HNO3 and H3PO4
D) Conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4

Q.83 During SN2 reactions, configuration of the alkyl halide molecule:

A) Gets inverted
B) Remains same
C) Depends upon the carbon atom
D) Depends upon the electronegativity of halide

Q.84 Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the presence of

A) Dry Ether
B) Sodium Lead Alloy
C) Alcohol
D) Water

Q.85 Methanol is prepared from carbon monoxide and hydrogen. The catalyst used for this reaction is

A) ZnO + CoO2
B) ZnO + CuO
C) ZnO + Ag2O
D) Cr2O3 + ZnO

Q.86 Ethanol reacts with Ammonia to produce ethyl amine, the catalyst is

A) ZnCl2
B) ThO2
C) C6H5N
D) Cr2O3

Q.87 Dissociation constant of phenol is

A) 1.2 x 10^-10
B) 1.2 x 10^10
C) 1.3 x 10^10
D) 1.3 x 10^-10

Q.88 Dry distillation of a mixture of calcium salts of formic acid and acetic acid results into the formation of

A) Formaldehyde
B) Acetaldehyde
C) Calcium acetate
D) Sodium acetate

Q.89 Hydrolysis of cyano group by an aqueous acid results into

A) Carboxylic Acid
B) Acid Amide
C) Cyanohydride
D) Formaldehyde

Q.90 Brick red precipitates are formed when aldehydes react with

A) Sodium borohydride
B) Sodium bisulphite
C) Sodium nitroprusside
D) Fehling’s solution

Q.91 The nature of the amino acid ‘lysine’ is

A) Neutral
B) Acidic
C) Amphoteric
D) Basic

Q.92 Which of the following compounds, in the form of aqueous solution, on reaction with sodium carbonate will produce carbon dioxide gas?

A) H3C-COO-C2H5
B) H3C2-COO-CH3
C) H3C2-CO-OH
D) H3C2-COO-C2H5

Q.93 Collagen and albumin are

A) Simple proteins
B) Derived proteins
C) Polyamides
D) Polysaccharides

Q.94 Urea is produced by the reaction of liquid ammonia with

A) CO2
B) CO
C) CaO
D) C

Q.95 The calcium sulpho-aluminate is

A) Co.Al2O3.3CaSO4.6H2O
B) 3Ca.Al2O3.CaSO4.2H2O
C) 3Ca.Al2O3.3CaSO4.2H2O
D) 3Ca.Al2O3.3CaSO4.6H2O

Q.96 The coagulant used in raw water to precipitate suspended impurities is

A) Caustic soda
B) Lime water
C) Alum
D) Soda ash

Q.97 The whiteness of the recycled newspaper is improved by treating it with:

A) Sodium hydroxide
B) Per oxides
C) Super oxides
D) Normal oxides

Q.98 One mole of any gas at standard temperature and pressure (STP) occupies a volume of

A) 20.414 dm3
B) 22.414 dm3
C) 22.414 cm3
D) 23.414 dm3

Q.99 The relative abundance of the isotopes of the elements can be determined by:

A) Mass Spectrometry
B) X-rays
C) Chromatography
D) Solvent Extraction

Q.100 If we are given the mass of one substance, we can calculate volume of other substances and vice a versa with the help of balanced chemical equation. This is called

A) Mass-mass relationship
B) Mass-mole relationship
C) Mole-volume relationship
D) Mass-volume relationship

Q.101 Sublimation is used to purify

A) Ammonium sulphate
B) Sodium chloride
C) Benzoic acid
D) Lead carbonate

Q.102 The purity of a substance can be identified by

A) Sublimation
B) Filtration
C) Chromatography
D) Solvent extraction

Q.104 The root mean square velocity of gases is inversely proportional to the square root of their:

A) Molar mass
B) Temperature
C) Pressure
D) Volume

Q.105 Plasma is the ionized gas mixture which consists of

A) Ions and electrons
B) Electrons and neutral atoms
C) Electrons, ions and neutral atoms
D) Ions and neutral atoms

Q.106 Which type of force is present in gasoline?

A) Dipole-dipole forces
B) Dipole-induced dipole forces
C) London dispersion forces
D) hydrogen bonding

Q.107 In the structure of NaCl, each Na+ is surrounded by _____ Cl- ions.

A) Four
B) Eight
C) Five
D) Six

Q.108 The charge of one gram of electron is

A) 1.7588 x 10^-11
B) 1.7588 x 10^11
C) 1.602 x 10^-19
D) 1.7588 x 10^8

Q.109 The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is

A) Zero
B) 13.13 kJmol-1
C) 1313.31 kJmol-1
D) 1313.31 k2 Jmol

Q.110 Which quantum number helps to study the orientation of an orbital in space?

A) Principal Quantum Number
B) Spin Quantum Number
C) Magnetic Quantum Number
D) Azimuthal Quantum Number

Q.111 The inter-ionic distance in a crystal lattice of KCl is

A) 314 pm
B) 181 pm
C) 95 pm
D) 300 pm

Q.112 The number of bonds in nitrogen molecule is

A) One σ and two π
B) One σ and one π
C) Three σ only
D) Two σ and one π

Q.113 Which one of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?

A) NH3
B) CHCl3
C) BF3
D) H2O

Q.114 A spontaneous process is

A) Unidirectional and irreversible
B) Irreversible and a real process
C) Unidirectional and a real process
D) All of the above

Q.115 The standard enthalpy of solution of NH4Cl is ____________ kJmol-1.

A) +16.2
B) -25.0
C) +4.98
D) +26.0

UHS 2010

Quiz Summary

Information

Results

Results

Categories

1. Question

2. Question

3. Question

4. Question

5. Question

6. Question

7. Question

8. Question

9. Question

10. Question

11. Question

12. Question

13. Question

14. Question

15. Question

16. Question

17. Question

18. Question

19. Question

20. Question

21. Question

22. Question

23. Question

24. Question

25. Question

26. Question

27. Question

28. Question

29. Question

30. Question

31. Question

32. Question

33. Question

34. Question

35. Question

36. Question

37. Question

38. Question

39. Question

40. Question

41. Question

42. Question

43. Question

44. Question

45. Question

46. Question

47. Question

48. Question

49. Question

50. Question

51. Question

52. Question

53. Question

54. Question

55. Question

56. Question

57. Question

58. Question

59. Question

60. Question

61. Question

62. Question

63. Question

64. Question

65. Question

66. Question

67. Question

68. Question

69. Question

70. Question

71. Question

72. Question

73. Question