UHS 2009

Q.1 If R1 = 10 kΩ and R2 = 100 kΩ then the gain of op-amplifier as inverting amplifier is:

A) –1
B) 10
C) –10
D) 1

Q.2 If inputs A = 1, B = 0 and output X = 1, then it corresponds to the operation of a:

A) AND Gate
B) NAND Gate
C) XNOR Gate
D) NOR Gate

Q.3 The value of Stefan’s Boltzmann Constant is:

A) 4.28 x 10-7 Wm-2K-4
B) 4.28 x 10-4 Wm-2K-4
C) 3.62 x 10-4 Wm-2K-4
D) 5.67 x 10-5 Wm-2K-4

Q.4 Einstein’s photoelectric equation is given by:

A) hf = ϕ = ½ mv2
B) E = mc
C) E = hc2
C) E = hc2

Q.5 In Compton Effect, the value of h/moc is given by:

A) 1.43 x 10-11 m
B) 2.56 x 10-12 m
C) 2.43 x 10-12 m
D) 3.46 x 10-6 m

Q.6 If a particle of mass 5.0 mg moves with the speed of 8.0 m/sec, then the de-Broglie’s
wavelength will be:

A) 1.68 x 10-27 m
B) 1.70 x 10-25 m
C) 1.65 x 10-29 m
D) 1.66 x 10-29 m

Q.7 LASER is a device which can produce:

A) Intense beam of light
B) Intense, Coherent, Monochromatic beam of light
C) Coherent beam of light
D) Monochromatic beam of light

Q.8 A crack allows greater amount of X-rays to pass, which appears on photographic film as:

A) Blue Area
B) Dark Area
C) Bright Area
D) Red Area

Q.10 For intermediate energy of radiations, the dormant process is:

A) Compton Effect
B) Nuclear Effect
C) Photoelectric Effect
D) Pair Production

Q.11 The dimensions of gravitational constant “G” are:

A) [ML-2T-1]
B) [M2 L-2T-1]
C) [ML-2T-2]
D) [M-1 L3T-1]

Q.12 Ultraviolent radiations cause:

A) Severe Crop Damage
B) Sunburn, blindness, skin cancer
C) Decay of Microorganisms
D) All of the above

Q.15 Two waves of slightly different frequencies and travelling in the same direction lead to:

A) Stationary Waves
B) Interference
C) Beats
D) Both B and C

Q.16 What is it that we use to calculate the speeds of distant stars and galaxies?

A) Doppler Effect
B) Interference
C) Beats
D) All of the above

Q.17 In Young’s Double Slit Experiment, if the distance between slits and screen is doubled, then fringe spacing becomes:

A) Zero
B) One
C) Doubles of the original value
D) Half of the original value

Q.18 In Michelson’s interferometer 792 bright fringes pass across the field of view when its movable mirror is displaced through 0.233 mm using the equation l = m λ/2 the wavelength of light used is:

A) 588 nm
A) 588 nm
C) 348 nm
D) 400 nm

Q.19 In Michelson’s Experiment, the formula to calculate the speed of light is:

A) c = 2 fd
B) c = 2π f /d
C) c = 16 f /d
D) c = 16 fd

Q.20 The information received at the other end of a fibre can be inaccurate due to _______ of the light signal

A) Longer wavelengths
B) Frequency
C) Intensity
D) Dispersion or Spreading

Q.21 The pressure on the other sides and everywhere inside the vessel will be according to the:

A) Pascal’s Law
B) Hook’s Law
C) Boyle’s Law
D) Charles’s Law

Q.22 The value of universal; Gas Constant ‘R’ is;

A) 8.314 Jmol-2K-1
B) 1.38 Jmol-1 K-2
C) 1.38 Jmol-1K-1
D) 8.314 Jmol-1 K-1

Q.23 For adiabatic process, the First Law of Thermodynamics is:

A) W = ∆U + Q
B) Q = – W
C) Q = W
D) W = – ∆U

Q.24 The entropy of the universe always:

A) Decreases
B) Increases
C) Remains the same
D) Both A and B

Q.25 The work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another against the electric field is a measure of:

A) Capacitance
B) Potential difference between two points
C) Intensity of electric field
D) Resistance between two points

Q.27 The scalar product of i

A) Zero
B) 90°
C) 1
D) –1

Q.28 If the body is rotating with uniform angular velocity, then its torque is:

A) Zero
B) Clockwise
C) Maximum
D) Remains the same

Q.29 Speed of light, radio waves and microwaves in vacuum is:

A) 3 x 105 ms-1
B) 3 x 103 ms-1
C) 3 x 106 ms-1
D) 3 x 108 ms-1

Q.30 A body is moving with an initial velocity of 2 kms-1. After a time of 50 secs its velocity becomes 1.5 kms-1. Its acceleration will be:

A) 30 ms-1
B) 40 ms-1
C) 20 ms-1
D) 10 ms-1

Q.32 In elastic collision, when a massive body collides with light body at conditions m1 >> m2 and v2 = 0 ms-1, then the change in velocity will be written as:

A) v1’ ≈ − v1 ; v2’ ≈ v1
B) v1’ ≈ v1 ; v2’ ≈ 0
C) v1’ ≈ v1 ; v2’ ≈ 2v1
D) v1’ ≈ − v1 ; v2’ ≈ 0

Q.33 If a certain force acts on an object and changes its kinetic energy from 65 J to 130 J, then work done by the force will be:

A) 92.5 J
B) 97.5 J
C) 65 J
D) 130 J

Q.34 A bullet train is lifted above the rails due to magnetic effect, thus friction is reduced to minimum and speed can be enhanced up to:

A) 500 Km min-1

Q.35 In a certain circuit, if the transistor has a collector current of 10 mA and base current of 50 μA, then the current gain of the transistor is

A) 250
B) 100
C) 150
D) 200

Q.36 A signal that is applied at the inverting input terminal of an op-amplifier undergo amplification, at the output terminal with a phase shift of:

A) 0°
B) 270°
C) 360°
D) 180°

Q.37 Solar energy at normal incidence outside the earth’s atmosphere is about:

A) 2.5 kWm-2
B) 0.6 kWm-2
C) 1.4 kWm-2
D) 2.0 kWm-2

Q.38 Linear velocity or tangential velocity of any particle moving in a circular path of radius 2 m with angular velocity 8 rads-1 will be:

A) 16 ms-1
B) 4 ms-1
C) 10 ms-1
D) 6 ms-1

Q.39 What is torque ‘τ’ in a circular motion?

A) τ = mr2π
B) τ = mr2α
C) τ = mrα
D) τ = mr2 /α

Q.40 If the mass attached with a spring becomes four times, the time period of vibration becomes:

A) One fourth
B) 3/4
C) Half
D) Double

Q.41 A body of mass 6 g falls under action of gravity. At initial position ‘A’ its P.E. is 480 J and K.E. is 0 J. During its downward journey at point ‘B’ its energies will be (g = 10 ms-2):

A) P.E. = 300 J and K.E. = 180 J
B) P.E. = 180 J and K.E. = 300 J
C) P.E. = 230 J and K.E. = 250 J
D) P.E. = 250 J and K.E. = 230 J

Q.45 In a microwave oven, the wave produced has a wavelength of 12 cm at a frequency of:

A) 2452 Hz
B) 2456 Hz
C) 2455 Hz
D) 2450 Hz

Q.46 Speed of the waves is equal to:

A) fλ
B) λ/ T
C) Both A and B
D) λT

Q.47 A particle carrying charge of 2e falls through a potential difference of 3.0 V. Calculate the energy required by it:

A) 9.6 x 10-19 J
B) 9.1 x 10-19 J
C) 1.6 x 10-19 J
D) 6.0 x 10-19 J

Q.48 The deviation of I-V graph from the straight line is due to:

A) Decrease in temperature and decrease in resistance
B) Increase in temperature and increase in resistance
C) Decrease in temperature and increase in resistance
D) Increase in temperature and decrease in resistance

Q.49 The fractional change in resistance per Kelvin is known as:

A) Temperature coefficient of resistance
B) Thermal coefficient
C) Linear coefficient of expansion
D) Volumetric coefficient of expansion

Q.50 The energy supplied by the cell to the charge carriers is derived from the conversion of:

A) Heat energy into Electrical energy
B) Chemical energy into Electrical energy
C) Solar energy into Electrical energy
D) Mechanical energy into Electrical energy

Q.51 Force experienced by a moving change in a magnetic field is:

A) F = BA cosϴ
B) F = μo NI
C) F = q (v x B)
D) F = I (L x B)

Q.52 The value of permeability of free space μo is:

A) 4π x 10-7 WbA-1m-1
B) 4π x 102 WbA-2m-2
C) 4π x 10-7 WbA-2m-1
D) 4π x 102 WbA-1m-2

Q.53 What shunt resistance must be connected across a Galvanometer of 20 Ω resistance which gives full scale deflection with 2.0 A current, so as to convert it into an Ammeter of range 10 A?

A) 5 Ω
B) 2 Ω
C) 3 Ω
D) 4 Ω

Q.54 The current measuring part of the Avometer consists of number of low resistances connected:

A) At an angle of 180° with the galvanometer
B) Parallel with the galvanometer
C) At an angle of 45° with the galvanometer
D) Perpendicular to the galvanometer

Q.55 A charge of two micro coulombs (2 μC) moves with velocity of two meter per second (2 m/sec) in the direction of two Tesla magnetic field. The force that will act on it will be:

A) 2 N
B) Zero
C) 8 N
D) 4 N

Q.56 We have two coils placed close to each other. When we switch on the battery connected to primary coil while keeping the sliding contact of rheostat at fixed position, the reading of
Galvanometer:

A) First increases and then becomes zero
B) First increases and then becomes constant at some value
C) Increases with the passage of time
D) Remains zero

Q.57 Power losses in a transformer can be minimized:

A) By increasing turn ratio
B) By decreasing turn ratio
C) By stopping the flow of Eddy currents
D) Using material of the core whose hysteresis area is large

Q.58 In R-L Series circuit, the phase difference between applied voltage and current is given by the angle ϴ which is:

A) ϴ = tan-1 LR/ ω
A) ϴ = tan-1 LR ω
C) ϴ = tan-1 ω /g
D) ϴ = tan-1 ωR/L

Q.59 Frequency of L-C circuit will resonate under the driving action of the antenna by angular value of:

A) Capacitance
B) Impedance
C) Inductance
D) Resistance

Q.60 To convert the Si crystal into p-type semi-conductor, which group element will be doped:

A) Trivalent Element
B) Second Group Element
C) Fourth Group Element
D) Pentavalent Element

Q.61 Which of the following is an exothermic reaction?

A) H+(aq) + OH−(aq) —->H2O(l)
B) Na(g)—-> Na+(g) + 1e−
C) 1 /2 H2(g)—> H(g)
D) 1/ 2 Cl2(g)—–> Cl(g)

Q.62 The rate equation determined experimentally for this reaction:
(CH3)3―C―Br + H2O —>(CH3)3―C―OH + HBr Is, Rate = k[(CH3)3CBr] Hence it is which of the follwing?

A) Fractional Order
B) Pseudo First Order
C) First Order
D) Second Order

Q.63 Equilibrium constant Kc for
H2O —->H+ + OH− Can be written as follows:

Q.65 Each molecule of haemoglobin is made up of nearly:

A) 11000 atom
B) 6600 atoms
C) 10000 atoms
D) 6800 atoms

Q.66 A limiting reactant is the one which:

A) Is mostly a cheaper substance and taken in larger quantity
B) Is consumed earlier and controls the amount of product formed in a chemical reaction
C) Gives greatest number of moles of products
D) Is left behind after the completion of reaction

Q.67 During isotopic analysis, the pressure of the vapours of the ions maintained in the ionization chamber of mass spectrometer is:

A) Around 10-7 torr
B) Around 10-3 torr
C) 1 torr
D) 10-7 torr

Q.68 The acid which can be purified by the sublimation is:

A) Acetic Acid
B) Benzoic Acid
C) Oxalic Acid
D) Citric Acid

Q.69 Paper chromatography is used for:

A) Elemental Analysis
B) Industrial Purification
C) Qualitative Analysis
D) Structural Analysis

Q.70 In the process of respiration there is application of:

A) Dalton’s Law
C) Charles’s Law
C) Boyle’s Law
D) Graham’s Law

Q.71 The formula of acrylonitrile is:

A) CH3=CH―CN
B) CH3―CH2―CH2―CN
C) CH3―CH2―CN
D) CH3―CN

Q.72 During nitration of benzene the active nitrating agent is:

A) NO2 −
B) HNO2
D) NO3
D) NO2 +

Q.73 Which compound is the most reactive one?

A) Ethyne
B) Ethane
C) Benzene
D) Ethene

Q.74 Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the presence of:

A) Dry Ether
B) CS2
C) Alcohol
D) CCl4

Q.75 When n-butyl magnesium iodide is treated with water, the product is:

A) n-butane
B) Iso-butane
C) Propane
D) Alcohol

Q.76 CO + 2H2X—>Y—> CH3OH

X and Y are:

A) ZnO + Al2O3 and 450 °C: 200 atm
B) ZnO + Cr2O3 and 450 °C: 200 atm
C) Al2O3 + Cr2O3 and 200 °C: 200 atm
D) ZnO + Cr2O3 and 450 °C: 200 atm

Q.77 Phenol reacts with concentrated H2SO4 to give:

A) ortho hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid
B) meta hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid
C) ortho and para hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid
D) para hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid

Q.78 Phenol can be distinguished from alcohol by adding:

A) Br2/H2O
B) Cl2/H2O
C) FeSO4
D) FeCl3

Q.79 In the conversion of ethylene into acetaldehyde, cupric chloride acts as:

A) Initiator
B) Promoter
C) Catalyst
D) Reactant

Q.80 When acetone is heated in the presence of K2Cr2O7/H2SO4, the products formed are;

A) Maleic Acid and Fumaric Acid
B) Acetic Acid and Formic Acid
C) Formic Acid and Oxalic Acid
D) Oxalic Acid and Acetic Acid

Q.81 Which acid is used in the manufacture of plastics?

A) Carbolic Acid
B) Acetic Acid
C) Carbonic Acid
D) Oxalic Acid

Q.83 In conjugated protein molecules, the protein is attached or conjugated to some non-protein group which are called:

A) Prosthetic Group
B) Aldehyde Group
C) Hydrogen Bonding
D) Peptide Linkage

Q.84 Micronutrients are required in quantity ranging from:

A) 6 – 200 g per acre
B) 6 – 200 kg per acre
C) 4 – 40 g per acre
D) 4 – 40 kg per acre

Q.85 Potassium fertilizers are especially useful for:

A) Mango
B) Tobacco
C) Wheat
D) Rice

Q.86 The yellowish colour of photochemical smog is due to the presence of:

A) Nitrogen dioxide
B) Dinitrogen trioxide
C) Nitrous oxide
D) Nitric oxide

Q.87 The incarnation process can reduce the volume of the water by:

A) One half
B) Not affected
C) One third
D) Two third

Q.88 __________% of the known universe is in the plasma state.

A) 30
B) 99
C) 50
D) 80

Q.89 Absolute zero is unattainable. Current attempts have resulted in temperature as low as:

A) 10-4 K
B) 10-2 K
C) 10-1 K
D) 10-5 K

Q.90 Electron gas theory was proposed to explain the bonding in ____________ solids:

A) Molecular
B) Ionic
C) Covalent
D) Metallic

Q.91 In proteins, there are on the average _________ amino acid units for each turn in helix:

A) 25
B) 27
C) 21
D) 23

Q.92 In atomic particles:

A) Mass of neutron is almost equal to mass of electron
B) e/m of a proton is almost equal to e/m of electron
C) Mass of proton is almost equal to mass of electron
D) Charge of proton is almost equal to charge of electron

Q.93 The extent of bonding of a light ray after passing through prism depends upon:

A) Wavelength of photons
B) Wave number of photons
C) Energy of photons
D) Frequency of photons

Q.94 Splitting of spectral lines in closely spaced lines in presence of magnetic field is called:

A) Stark Effect
B) Zeeman Effect
C) Photoelectric Effect
D) Compton Effect

Q.95 A bond is not formed:

A) When both forces become equal to each other
B) When repulsive forces become equal to zero
C) When attraction forces dominate repulsive forces
D) When repulsive forces dominate attraction forces

Q.96 If the electronegativity difference between bonded atoms is zero, the bond between the two atoms is:

A) Polar
B) Partially Ionic
C) Non-polar
D) Both B and C

Q.97 VSEPR theory helps in explaining:

A) Attraction between atoms
B) Size of molecule
C) Nature of bond
D) Shape of molecule

Q.98 Which of the following formation is an endothermic reaction?

A) C(g) + O2(g) —->CO2
B) N2(g) + 3H2(g)—-> 2NH3(g)
C) 2H2O(l)—–> 2H2(g) + O2(g)
D) None of the above

Q.99 Solubility of KClO3 can be decreased bin H2O by:

A) Removing K+ ions from the solution
B) Removing ClO3 -1 ions from the solution
C) Adding KCl from outside
D) Adding NaNO3 from outside

Q.100 36 g of HCl dissolves in 100 g of solution. The density of HCl is 1.19 gcm-3. The molar mass of the HCl solution will be:

A) 36.5 g/mo
B) 100 g/mol
C) 38.0 g/mol
D) 11.73 g/mol

Q.101 The heat of hydration decreases with the increase in:

A) Number of neutrons
B) Size of cations
C) Size of atomic radii
D) Number of electrons

Q.102 Stronger the oxidizing agent, greater is the:

A) Redox Potential
B) emf of the cell
C) Oxidation Potential
D) Reduction Potential

Q.103 The emf produced by Galvanic Cell is known as:

A) Redox Potentia
B) Oxidation Potential
C) Cell Potential
D) None of the above

Q.104 In nickel-cadmium battery, the cathode is composed of:

A) Cd
B) Ni(OH)2
C) Ni
D) NiO2

Q.105 Concentrated sugar solution undergoes hydrolysis into glucose and fructose by enzyme called:

A) Zymase
B) Invertase
C) Cellulose
D) Urease

Q.106 In Modern Periodic Table, the elements in Group II-B are:

A) Zn, Cd, Pb
B) Zn, Cd, Hg
C) Zn, Cd, Ba
D) Zn, Cd, Bi

Q.107 Hydrogen loses an electron to form:

A) H+
B) H2 −2
C) H
D) H−

Q.108 Which metal occurs as skeletal material in egg shell?

A) Calcium
B) Barium
C) Beryllium
D) Strontium

Q.109 At which condition are hydrides of alkaline earth metals formed:

A) At high pressure
B) At room temperature
C) At high temperature
D) None of the above

Q.110 Which metal carbide is formed readily by the direct reaction?

A) Rubidium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) Lithium

Q.111 Asbestos is hydrated _________ magnesium silicate.

A) Calcium
B) Aluminium
C) Barium
D) Carbon

Q.112 Formula of lead suboxide is:

A) Pb2O3
B) Pb2O
C) PbO
D) Pb3O4

Q.113 Phosphine can be produced by __________ of phosphorous acid.

A) Hydration
B) Hydrolysis
C) Oxidation
D) Reduction

Q.114 Which Noble Gas is used in bacterial lamps?

A) Xenon
B) Radon
C) Argon
D) Krypton

Q.115 The most durable metal plating on iron to protect against corrosion is:

A) Tin plating
B) Zinc plating
C) Nickel plating
D) Copper plating

Q.116 Colour of the transition metal ions/ compounds is due to the electrons present in:

A) d-orbital
B) s-orbital
C) p-orbital
D) None of the above

Q.117 Chromyl Chloride Test is performed to confirm:

A) Cl− ions
B) SO4 −2 ions
C) PO4 −3 ions
D) Cr+3 ions

Q.118 Linear shape is associated with set of hybrid orbitals?

A) sp2
B) dsp2
C) sp3
D) sp

Q.119 Which one of the following compounds show cis-trans isomerism?

A) 1-butene
B) 1-hexene
C) 1-bromo-2-chloropropane
D) Propene

Q.121 The traveler __________ a long detour to water the camels.

A) Took
B) Saw
C) Sought
D) Made

Q.122 Shah Jahan __________ the great mosque at Delhi.

A) Founded
B) Raised
C) Created
D) Established

Q.123 He was __________ of theft in the court.

A) Charged
B) Reported
C) Blamed
D) Accused

Q.124 He __________ on a very extraordinary ambition.

A) Arrived
B) Decided
C) Came
D) Hit

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are
underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which
contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the Circle corresponding to that
letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.

Q.125 He is better than all the boys in the class, in studies as well as in sports, and bags big prizes in various field.

better than
as well as
bags
various

Q.126 One must not depend too much upon one’s hard work, as provident also plays its part.

too much
one’s hard work
provident
plays its part.

Q.127 His first adventure was to go round through the world at minimum cost.

first adventure
go round
through
minimum cost

Q.128 He has been working in this department since the last five years without any break.

has been working
since
last five years
break

Q.129 He reached at Lahore only a few days ago, on last Friday, to be exact, and is going to stay here for some time.

reached at
a few
to be exact
is going to stay

Q.130 There was a big rally on the Mall, but as the crowd disintegrated, chaos and confusion ruled everywhere.

a big rally
disintegrated
chaos
ruled

In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

A) E-mail is a relatively new mean of communication.
B) E-mail is a relatively new mean to communication
C) E-mail is a relatively new means of communication
D) E-mail is a relatively new means to communication

In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given.
Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the
MCQ Response Form.

A) As she said the computer was programmed by Mona.
B) Just like she said the computer was programmed by Mona.
C) As like she said the computer was programmed by Mona.
D) Just like she had she said the computer was programmed by Mona.